![]() |
Re: Language observations....
Originally Posted by Deancm_MKII
(Post 9350102)
Yes, apparently the theory is that the original US settlers took the Olde English language with them and it hasn't had 400 years of French influence unlike Anglo English. Obviously American English has had 400 years to develop in it's own way with it's local influences.
American spelling especially is more similar Olde English. |
Re: Language observations....
Originally Posted by newjersey
(Post 9350151)
I can see where it is more apparent - the so called Amish country, located around Lancaster, PA. It is a closed community, they still live by the 17th century rules and must have preserved the language really well. I spent about 10 days in Lancaster after 9/11 getting sh.tfaced round the clock, so can't remember much.
|
Re: Language observations....
Originally Posted by Deancm_MKII
(Post 9350102)
Yes, apparently the theory is that the original US settlers took the Olde English language with them and it hasn't had 400 years of French influence unlike Anglo English. Obviously American English has had 400 years to develop in it's own way with it's local influences.
American spelling especially is more similar Olde English. Which is why you will never hear me complain about spelling, grammar or anything that 'must be wrong' when it might not be. |
Re: Language observations....
Originally Posted by Pollyana
(Post 9350290)
The Amish are certainly interesting; the way they manage to stay so isolated from modern culture is incredible - its one thing to do that on a desert island, but when surrounded by modern America? Must have been fascinating to be there, even if you can't remember much!
|
Re: Language observations....
Originally Posted by Bernie Barfly
(Post 9350322)
Sounds blissful:thumbup:
|
Re: Language observations....
Originally Posted by Deancm_MKII
(Post 9350102)
Yes, apparently the theory is that the original US settlers took the Olde English language with them and it hasn't had 400 years of French influence unlike Anglo English. Obviously American English has had 400 years to develop in it's own way with it's local influences.
American spelling especially is more similar Olde English. |
Re: Language observations....
Originally Posted by Rambi
(Post 9350545)
American spelling is and isn't like olde English because they didn't have standard spellings back then. Standardisation pretty much came around the time of the revolution and the two countries standardised on different spellings after that time. One is not older than the other. The US constitution contains some spellings that would nowadays be considered British rather than American.
Spelling was chaotic 400 years ago. Attempts at standardisation took forever to be widely accepted. Not sure what some comments about the French influence on English in the last few hundred years are referring to though... |
Re: Language observations....
Originally Posted by Deancm_MKII
(Post 9346524)
Apparently American English is closer to proper Olde English than English is. Modern English is a French bastardised version of it.
And micel is nydþearf manna gehwilcum þæt he Godes lage gime. Which means: And it is necessary for each man that he should heed God's law. Or this: þa ðe bet cunnon and magon sceolon gyman oðra manna. Which means: Those who have more abilities should take care of other men. American English preserves some archaisms from Elizabethan English ('whom' for example is rather better understood in the US and more widely used than in British English); but the differences in literary English between the UK and US are ultimately very minor. You'd hear more of it in speech. |
Re: Language observations....
Originally Posted by tonyk38
(Post 9362119)
If American English was like Old English it would be incomprehensible to us. For example:
And micel is nydþearf manna gehwilcum þæt he Godes lage gime. Which means: And it is necessary for each man that he should heed God's law. Or this: þa ðe bet cunnon and magon sceolon gyman oðra manna. Which means: Those who have more abilities should take care of other men. American English preserves some archaisms from Elizabethan English ('whom' for example is rather better understood in the US and more widely used than in British English); but the differences in literary English between the UK and US are ultimately very minor. You'd hear more of it in speech. There was a good documentary about this called 'The Adventure of English' which explains the French influence and the settlers in America. |
Re: Language observations....
This is a really interesting BBC article on the origins of British swear words. It notes some differences between American and Aussie uses :D
|
Re: Language observations....
Originally Posted by Deancm_MKII
(Post 9362261)
When I said Olde English, to be specific I meant English at the time that America was discovered. Which I would've thought would be obvious considering I mentioned the first American settlers. So, to be more accurate, it would be early modern English.
There was a good documentary about this called 'The Adventure of English' which explains the French influence and the settlers in America. |
Re: Language observations....
Originally Posted by Deancm_MKII
(Post 9362261)
When I said Olde English, to be specific I meant English at the time that America was discovered. Which I would've thought would be obvious considering I mentioned the first American settlers. So, to be more accurate, it would be early modern English.
There was a good documentary about this called 'The Adventure of English' which explains the French influence and the settlers in America. I never assumed anything was obvious because the historical juxtapostitions seemed odd. But yes, it is Early Modern English. |
Re: Language observations....
Originally Posted by ukecadet
(Post 9362351)
At drama school we were having a talk with a director from the Royal Shakespeare Company.A student said that they couldn't stand it when Americans performed Shakespeare because of their accents. His reply to that was on the same line as your theory . He went on to say that an American production would be more like the original Elizabethan plays than anything that you would see at Stratford.
|
Re: Language observations....
Originally Posted by tonyk38
(Post 9362077)
... Attempts at standardisation took forever to be widely accepted.
... |
Re: Language observations....
Originally Posted by tonyk38
(Post 9362389)
What many people don't realise is that the 'rhotic' pronunciation by most Americans was also far more widespread in England in the past, rather than mostly being a West Country/North Lancashire phenomenon as today. So Americans it could be argued have a better accent for Shakespeare than someone from say, the south east of England.
|
| All times are GMT -12. The time now is 4:36 am. |
Powered by vBulletin: ©2000 - 2026, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.
Copyright © 2026 MH Sub I, LLC dba Internet Brands. All rights reserved. Use of this site indicates your consent to the Terms of Use.